Bộ 30 Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 12 cấp tỉnh (kèm đáp án)

“Bộ 30 Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 12 cấp tỉnh (kèm đáp án)” là tài liệu ôn luyện chuyên sâu dành cho học sinh lớp 12 có định hướng tham dự các kỳ thi học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh, quốc gia hoặc xét tuyển vào các trường đại học chuyên sâu về ngoại ngữ.

Tài liệu gồm:

30 đề thi chính thức, phản ánh chính xác cấu trúc đề thi học sinh giỏi các tỉnh, cập nhật theo xu hướng ra đề mới nhất.

Đáp án và Hướng dẫn chấm chi tiết, giúp học sinh tự kiểm tra, đánh giá năng lực và nhận diện lỗi sai.

🎧 12 file nghe (Audio) đi kèm, phục vụ cho phần Listening Comprehension, giúp học sinh luyện tập kỹ năng nghe hiệu quả.

Bộ đề được tổng hợp để rèn luyện toàn diện cả 3 kỹ năng: Nghe – Đọc – Viết, đặc biệt chú trọng vào:

  • Ngữ pháp nâng cao
  • Từ vựng học thuật
  • Kỹ năng làm bài thi và phân tích đề

📌 “Bộ 30 Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 12 cấp tỉnh (kèm đáp án)” được DeThiTiengAnh.net tổng hợp dành cho các đối tượng:

  • Học sinh lớp 12 muốn luyện thi môn tiếng Anh
  • Giáo viên sử dụng làm tài liệu ôn luyện cho học sinh giỏi
  • Phụ huynh muốn hỗ trợ con học tập tại nhà
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Bộ 30 Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 12 cấp tỉnh (kèm đáp án)
 DeThiTiengAnh.net 1
1 DeThiTiengAnh.net 1
 Đề số 1
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT 
 TỈNH QUẢNG NAM ĐỢT 2
 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 12 (không chuyên)
 (Đề thi gồm có 09 trang) Thời gian: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
 MÃ ĐỀ 711 
 001
 SECTION I: LISTENING
 HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 ● Mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần có tín hiệu.
 ● Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
 Part 1. Listen to a lecture about microplastics. Choose the answer which fits best according to what you 
 hear and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. Mã đề: 001
 Question 1. Why has awareness of plastic waste increased?
 A. Because microplastics are mostly found in oceans, making them easier to track.
 B. Because microplastics are the most dangerous form of pollution.
 C. Because large and small plastic waste is now widely recognized in the environment.
 D. Because strict regulations have eliminated plastic pollution in soil and water.
 Question 2. What is still unclear about microplastics?
 A. Whether they are found in oceans.
 B. How they enter the air.
 C. If they exist in synthetic clothing.
 D. Their long-term effects in freshwater and soil.
 Question 3. Which of the following is NOT a known source of microplastics?
 A. Factories releasing microplastics into the air.
 B. Large plastic waste breaking into small pieces.
 C. Synthetic clothing shedding fibres.
 D. Tyres wearing down on roads.
 Question 4. How do microplastics harm small animals?
 A. They make them resistant to disease.
 B. They block their digestive systems, making feeding difficult.
 C. They help them break down other pollutants.
 D. They improve digestion.
 Question 5. How are microplastics commonly ingested by humans?
 A. By touching plastic surfaces.
 B. Only through processed food packaging.
 C. Mainly through air pollution.
 D. Through seafood, salt, bottled water, and tap water.
 Question 6. What does research say about microplastics' effect on human health?
 A. There is no solid proof they cause significant harm.
 B. Laws have completely removed their risks.
 C. They only affect people who eat seafood daily.
 D. They have been linked to major diseases.
 Question 7. Why were earthworms chosen for the microplastic study?
 A. They are essential for soil fertility.
 B. They consume plastic in large amounts.
 C. They have no role in soil quality.
 D. They are the primary carriers of microplastics.
 Question 8. What did researchers find in soil with microplastics?
 A. Plants thrived in plastic-rich soil.
 B. Earthworms lost weight, and soil acidity increased. DeThiTiengAnh.net 2
 C. Microplastics improved soil fertility.
 D. Earthworms grew larger than normal.
 (Adapted from IELTS Cambridge 19)
Part 2. Listen to part of an interview between Professor Lee and Doctor Stafford about the topic of big 
data and health. Choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear and mark the letter A, B, 
C, or D on your answer sheet.
Question 9. What does the term ‘big data’ primarily refer to in the context of the interview?
 A. The amount of data stored in physical libraries.
 B. The speed at which data is generated and proliferated.
 C. Substantial data sets assembled for distinct goals.
 D. The large quantities of data available on social media.
Question 10. Why does Dr. Stafford draw an analogy between big data and a giant, fast-moving river?
 A. To compare data to a natural resource.
 B. To illustrate the abundance and necessity of data. 
 C. To emphasize the uncontrollable nature of data.
 D. To suggest data is easily accessible.
Question 11. What is one challenge mentioned regarding obtaining reliable health information?
 A. Patients' worries regarding the high cost of advanced medical testing.
 B. Patients' apprehensions about safeguarding their personal data.
 C. Patients' anxiety over the possibility of data being lost during collection.
 D. Patients’ concerns about the complexity of medical data analysis.
Question 12. What is suggested as a potential solution to improve the accuracy of health data collection?
 A. Encouraging patients to share their health information anonymously.
 B. Relying on patients' self-reports by promoting willingness to disclose information.
 C. Reducing the number of questions asked during medical evaluations.
 D. Using health tracking devices and objective data collection approaches.
Question 13. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
 A. It is predicted that artificial intelligence will one day replace medical professionals.
 B. Doctors have ample time to sift through and analyze medical data.
 C. Doctors prefer to analyze raw medical data themselves rather than rely on AI.
 D. The current focus on health data collection does not address the need for usability.
Question 14. What is a guiding principle in projects involving big data in pharmaceuticals?
 A. Minimal data collection leads to more streamlined results.
 B. Quality over quantity of data is essential for success.
 C. Accumulating more data contributes to improved outcomes.
 D. Data should be collected only from a limited number of sources.
Question 15. What role does big data play in patient follow-up care?
 A. Identifying patients who are likely to be non-compliant.
 B. Replacing doctors regarding monitoring patients in hospitals.
 C. Eliminating the need for hospital visits among reluctant patients.
 D. Scheduling follow-up appointments with skilled doctors.
Question 16. What is Dr. Stafford’s attitude toward big data in the medical field?
 A. Indifferent and uninformed.
 B. Skeptical and cautious.
 C. Optimistic and forward-looking.
 D. Critical and dismissive.
 (Adapted from Pathway 4)
SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR; COMMUNICATION RESPONSES
Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
following questions. 
Question 17. Meryl Streep is the actress _____ I owe my passion for cinema.
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 A. thatB. to whichC. whomD. to whom
Question 18. Television came into _____ and became a competitor with the motion pictures. 
 A. enforcementB. practiceC. useD. life
Question 19. You can tell her to clean her room until you are __________ in the face, but she won’t do it.
 A. orangeB. greenC. blueD. red
Question 20. Max is visually _____, so he is asked questions by the examiner and answer orally.
 A. intellectual B. disruptiveC. impliedD. impaired
Question 21. These _____ earphones are never any good- they’ve stopped working after only three days.
 A. e-commerceB. cut-priceC. interest-freeD. sell-by
Question 22. I don’t have a(n) _____ what you are talking about, slow down and start again from the 
beginning.
 A. thoughtB. inklingC. memoD. clue
Question 23. After having chatted for an hour, they no longer had much to say to each other and their 
conversation began to ______. 
 A. settle upB. phase outC. peter outD. trickle down
Question 24. Parents are always willing to lend a sympathetic _____ to their children when they have 
problems.
 A. pawB. eyeC. earD. hand
Question 25. Under no circumstances _____ gratuities from clients. 
 A. are members of staff to accept B. do members of staff accept
 C. may members of staff accept D. must members of staff accept 
Question 26. _____ violinist is Iris that she has been invited to perform in front of the royal family. 
 A. So she is a fineB. So fine a 
 C. Such she is a fineD. Such fine a
Question 27. She was being ______ pessimistic about the marketing campaign's success, even though 
early customer engagement metrics were highly positive.
 A. undulyB. abundantlyC. plentifullyD. assuredly
Question 28. The couple had been living in a _____ relationship for eight years and then they didn’t feel 
the attraction of each other.
 A. secureB. balancedC. stableD. solid
Question 29. I’d rather _____ to George about the matter, but unfortunately I didn’t have time.
 A. spokeB. have spokenC. speakD. to speak 
Question 30. Everyone says that new Indian restaurant is fantastic, but I think it’s _____ because the food 
is really not that great.
 A. creativeB. grippingC. outstandingD. overrated
Question 31. Children’s _____ skills, which are the brain-based skills required to carry out tasks, develop 
rapidly in the first few years of their lives.
 A. emotional B. consciousC. cognitiveD. characteristic
Question 32. _____ be given the opportunity to take part in a reality show, what would you do? 
 A. Were you to B. ShouldC. Had youD. If you
Part 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning 
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 33. If you want to relax, watch the clouds pass by if you are lying on the grass or sit in front of 
the creek; just doing nothing and having those still movements is what really rejuvenates the body. 
 A. returnsB. refreshes C. reloadsD. recollects
Question 34. From childhood, Marie was remarkable for her prodigious memory, and at the age of 16 won 
a gold medal on completion of her secondary education. 
 A. strong-willedB. customaryC. quick- wittedD. extraordinary
Part 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in 
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35. Electric vehicles were hyped up as the future of transportation last year, driven by 
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advancements in battery technology and government incentives.
 A. depreciatedB. evaluatedC. surmountedD. recognized
Question 36. One of the best ways to understand what a job is like is to do it. Work experience is a great 
way to get a feel for what a job is all about.
 A. to touch with one’s own handsB. to have the faintest idea about
 C. to do something on purposeD. to have an understanding about 
Part 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs 
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 37. If you have some sufficient knowledge of English, you can make yourself understand almost 
everywhere.
 A. understandB. ofC. almostD. some
Question 38. Ha Long Bay, the global heritage realized twice by the UNESCO, remains one of the 
country’s top attractions. 
 A. attractionsB. remainsC. realizedD. the
Part 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make 
a meaningful exchange in each of the following questions.
Question 39. 
a. Ann: Absolutely. I’ve been looking forward to it all month. Do you know what activities they have 
there?
b. John: Yes, they have huge water slides, a lazy river, and even a wave pool. I can’t wait to try them all.
c. John: Hey. Are you excited about the water park trip this weekend?
d. Ann: That sounds so fun. I’m definitely going to start with the biggest slide. What about you?
e. John: I think I’ll try the lazy river first, it sounds relaxing. Then we can go on the slides together.
 A. c-a-b-e-dB. c-a-d-b-eC. c-a-b-d-eD. c-b-d-a-e
Question 40. 
a. Jessica: That sounds amazing. I’ve always wanted to go to Italy. What’s drawing you to Spain?
b. Thomas: I love the culture and the language. Plus, I hear the food is incredible. Are you considering any 
specific cities in Italy? 
c. Thomas: Have you thought about studying abroad next year? I’ve been looking into programs in Spain.
d. Jessica: I’m thinking about Florence. The art and history there are fascinating. Have you looked into any 
specific universities?
e. Thomas: Yes, I’m interested in a few programs in Barcelona. I think it would be a great opportunity to 
immerse myself in the language and meet new people.
 A. c-a-b-e-dB. c-a-b-d-eC. c-d-e-b-aD. c-d-b-a-e
SECTION III: READING
Part 1. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
 HOMESCHOOLING IN RURAL AREAS
For families living in rural areas, geographical constraints can mean that it is not always practicable for 
parents to enrol their children in the nearest school. In such cases, they (41) ______ the role of the teacher 
themselves by opting to homeschool their children. Although a(n) (42) ______ form of education, many 
parents consider homeschooling to have many advantages over the traditional classroom environment. For 
example, lessons are (43) ______ to a child’s needs, interests, and learning style while, at the same time, 
extra attention can be given to those subjects the child is having dificulties with. While a national (44) ______ 
is still followed, many parents strive to (45) ______ information in more innovative and creative ways than 
those often employed in a classroom. Michelle Hamilton, who homeschooled all three of her children, 
explains: ‘If (46) ______ we were to study something related to the environment or science, we would take 
the lesson into the local woods. Being able to see and touch the things their books were describing really (47) 
______ the children to want to learn more. Though many parents worry that the absence of (48) ______ will 
hinder their child’s social development, this is unlikely to be the case. In fact, as homeschooled children have 
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increased opportunity to interact with people of different ages rather than being limited to children of the 
same age group, they often have (49) ______ social skills. 
Question 41. A. runB. manage C. undertake D. operate 
Question 42. A. vocationalB. underprivilegedC. revolutionaryD. unconventional
Question 43. A. versatileB. adaptable C. accessibleD. effective 
Question 44. A. curriculumB. inputC. tutorialD. guideline
Question 45. A. acquireB. conveyC. utilizeD. comprehend
Question 46. A. at all timesB. on timeC. at timesD. in time
Question 47. A. inspiredB. initiatedC. engagedD. qualified 
Question 48. A. associatesB. acquaintancesC. personnelD. peers
Question 49. A. boostedB. enhancedC. elevated D. certified
Part 2. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
option that best fits each of the following questions.
 THE TRUE PRICE OF ORGANIC FARMING
Organic farming is a system of agricultural production that does not make use of genetically modified seeds 
and that substitutes artificial pesticides and fertilisers with organic ones. But why is there almost always a 
substantial difference between the cost of organically produced food and that of non-organic alternatives?
One reason organic produce is sold at considerably higher prices (which in some cases can be 100% higher) 
relates to labour costs, (50) ______. A downside of not using chemicals is that food production is slower and 
crop failure more common. The organic farmer must therefore spend more time preparing the land and put a 
more intense effort into tending to crops (51) ______. What is more, as the well-being of livestock is 
prioritised in organic farming, feeding animals with better-quality food, as well as (52) ______. So, all things 
considered, organic food may actually be good value for money, which is probably why consumers are 
anything (53) ______. 
Since concerns over the effects of conventional farming on both human health and the environment first 
surfaced the number of people (54) ______. In fact, the demand for organic produce is now so high that the 
supply is unable to meet it, and with organic farming accounting for no more than 5% of total agricutural 
production in the UK, this is unlikely to change any time soon. 
Question 50. 
 A. which are undoubtedly greater for the organic farmer 
 B. which the organic farmer benefits greatly from
 C. which lead to the great organic farmer undoubtedly
 D. which result from the great organic farmer
Question 51. 
 A. as well as controlling pets and weeds- sometimes by hand
 B. and they use their hands to control pets and weeds
 C. and they control pets and weeds- sometimes by hand
 D. apart from controlling pets and weeds- sometimes by hand
Question 52. 
 A. making sure they are in optimal living conditions and keeps high prices
 B. ensuring their optimal living conditions and keeping prices high 
 C. ensuring their living conditions are optimal, keeps prices high
 D. making sure they lead an optimistic life and keeping prices high
Question 53. 
 A. so discouraged from purchasing what they regard as being much healthier, tastier food
 B. but discouraged from purchasing what they perceive to be much healthier, tastier food 
 C. but encouraged them to buy what they perceive to be more delicious food
 D. so it is inadvisable for them to purchase what they perceive to be more delicious food
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Question 54. 
 A. who tend to cut down on conventionally produced food from their diet has been surprisingly 
 increasing
 B. opting to cut out conventionally produced food from their diet has been on the rise
 C. choosing conventionally produced food for their diet has been on the rise
 D. who opt to reduce conventionally produced food from their diet has been in decline
Part 3. Read an extract from an article on the design of green buildings and choose the answer (A, B, C 
or D) that fits best according to the text in each of the following questions.
There has, in recent years, been an outpouring of information about the impact of buildings on the natural 
environment. Information which explains and promotes green and sustainable construction design, strives to 
convince others of its efficacy and warns of the dangers of ignoring the issue. Seldom do these documents 
offer any advice to practitioners, such as those designing mechanical and electrical systems for a building, 
on how to utilise this knowledge on a practical level.
While the terms green and sustainable are often considered synonymous, in that they both symbolise nature, 
green does not encompass all that is meant by sustainability, which can be defined as minimizing the negative 
impacts of human activities on the natural environment, in particular those which have long-term and 
irreversible effects. Some elements of green design may be sustainable too, for example, those which reduce 
energy usage and pollution, while others, such as ensuring internal air quality, may be considered green 
despite having no influence on the ecological balance.
Although there are a good many advocates of ‘green’ construction in the architectural industry, able to cite ample 
reasons why buildings should be designed in a sustainable way, not to mention a plethora of architectural firms 
with experience in green design, this is not enough to make green construction come into being. The driving force 
behind whether a building is constructed with minimal environmental impact lies with the owner of the building; 
that is, the person financing the project. If the owner considers green design unimportant, or of secondary 
importance, then more than likely, it will not be factored into the design.
The commissioning process plays a key role in ensuring the owner gets the building he wants, in terms of 
design, costs and risk. At the predesign stage, the owner’s objectives, criteria and the type of design envisaged 
are discussed and documented. This gives a design team a solid foundation on which they can build their 
ideas, and also provides a specific benchmark against which individual elements, such as costs, design and 
environmental impact can be judged.
Owners who skip the commissioning process, or fail to take ‘green’ issues into account when doing so, often 
come a cropper once their building is up and running. Materials and equipment are installed as planned, and, 
at first glance, appear to fulfil their purpose adequately. However, in time, the owner realises that operational 
and maintenance costs are higher than necessary, and that the occupants are dissatisfied with the results. These 
factors in turn lead to higher ownership costs as well as increased environmental impact.
In some cases, an owner may be aware of the latest trends in sustainable building design. He may have done 
research into it himself, or he may have been informed of the merits of green design through early discussion 
with professionals. However, firms should not take it as read that someone commissioning a building already 
has a preconceived idea of how green he intends the structure to be. Indeed, this initial interaction between 
owner and firm is the ideal time for a designer to outline and promote the ways that green design can meet 
the client’s objectives, thus turning a project originally not destined for green design into a potential 
candidate.
Typically, when considering whether or not adopting a green approach, an owner will ask about additional 
costs, return for investment and to what extent green design should be the limiting factor governing decisions 
in the design process. (I) Many of these costs are incurred by the increased cooperation between the various 
stakeholders, such as the owner, the design professionals, contractors and end-users. (II) However, in green 
design, they must be involved from the outset, since green design demands interaction between these 
disciplines. (III) This increased coordination clearly requires additional expenditure. (IV) A client may 
initially balk at these added fees, and may require further convincing of the benefits if he is to proceed. It is 
up to the project team to gauge the extent to which a client wants to get involved in a green design project 
and provide a commensurate service.
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Of course, there may be financial advantage for the client in choosing a greener design. Case studies cite 
examples of green/sustainable designs which have demonstrated lower costs for long-term operation, 
ownership and even construction. Tax credits and rebates are usually available on a regional basis for projects 
with sustainable design or low emissions, among others.
Question 55. The writer’s main purpose is to _____.
 A. explain the importance of green building designs in reducing long-term damage to the environment.
 B. explain to professionals how they can influence clients to choose greener designs.
 C. explain to owners commissioning a building why ignoring green issues is costly and dangerous.
 D. explain to professionals why it is important to follow the correct procedures when a building is 
 commissioned.
Question 56. The examples of green and sustainable designs given in paragraph 2 show that _____.
 A. for the purposes of this paper, the terms green and sustainable have the same meaning.
 B. some sustainable designs are green, while others are not.
 C. designs must be sustainable in order for them to be described as green.
 D. some designs are termed green, even though they are not sustainable.
Question 57. According to paragraph 3, the reason for the lack of green buildings being designed is that _____.
 A. few firms have any experience in designing and constructing buildings to a green design.
 B. firms tend to convince clients that other factors are more important than sustainability.
 C. construction companies are unaware of the benefits of green and sustainable designs.
 D. firms do not get to decide whether a building is to be constructed sustainably.
Question 58. In paragraph 4, what does the word ‘benchmark’ mean?
 A. standardB. targetC. comparisonD. process
Question 59. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the commissioning process?
 A. It is a step in the design procedure in which the client’s goals are identified.
 B. It is a stage that all clients go through when constructing a building.
 C. It is conducted before the building is designed.
 D. It provides the firm with a measure of how well they did their job.
Question 60. In paragraph 5, what does the phrase ‘come a cropper’ mean?
 A. notice the benefitsB. change one’s mind
 C. experience misfortuneD. make a selection
Question 61. In paragraph 6, the writer implies that _____.
 A. most clients enter the commissioning process with a clear idea of whether or not they want a green building
 B. the commissioning process offers a perfect opportunity to bring up the subject of green design
 C. designers are usually less concerned about green design than the clients are
 D. firms should avoid working with clients who reject green designs in their buildings
Question 62. Where in paragraph 7 does this sentence belong?
 In a typical project, landscape architects and mechanical, electrical and plumbing engineers do not 
become involved until a much later stage.
 A. (I) B. (II) C. (III) D. (IV)
Question 63. In paragraph 7, what does the phrase ‘balk at’ mean?
 A. understand the need forB. agree to pay
 C. question the reason forD. display shock towards
Question 64. Green buildings are most likely to incur more expense than conventional buildings due to _____.
 A. the higher cost of green construction materials
 B. increased coordination between construction teams
 C. higher taxes incurred on sustainable buildings
 D. higher long-term operational costs
SECTION IV: WRITING 
Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines 
each pair of sentences in each of the following questions.
Question 65. There had been prior warning of the earthquake. Nevertheless, it came as a shock to the people 
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living in nearby villages.
 A. The earthquake had been predicted, for the residents in nearby villages were struck before they received 
 the warnings.
 B. Even though the earthquake had been predicted, residents of nearby villages were taken by surprise 
 when it struck.
 C. There had been warnings about the earthquake, so the people in nearby villages must not have been 
 surprised by it.
 D. The earthquake having been predicted, even those inhabitants living in nearby villages were prepared 
 for it.
Question 66. Jake refused to acknowledge his mistake. This only made the situation worse. 
 A. Had the situation improved, Jake would have acknowledged his mistake. 
 B. If Jake had admitted his mistake, the situation might not have deteriorated.
 C. Jake admitted his mistake, yet the situation continued to worsen. 
 D. The worse the situation became, the more Jake admitted his mistake. 
Question 67. The new policy caused widespread controversy. Many citizens expressed their strong 
opposition.
 A. Such was the backlash from the public that the government had to reconsider the execution of the new 
 policy.
 B. Rarely has a policy sparked as much unity among citizens as this one, with most standing firmly behind 
 the government’s decision.
 C. The citizens, despite their initial reluctance, ultimately accepted the policy with minimal objections.
 D. The implementation of the new policy was met with significant public resistance, as numerous citizens 
 voiced their disapproval. 
Question 68. The exam was difficult. Many students failed despite their hard work.
 A. No matter how hard they worked, many students failed because the exam was difficult. 
 B. The exam was so difficult that only hardworking students failed. 
 C. Even though the exam was difficult, many students did not work hard and failed.
 D. If the exam had not been difficult, many students wouldn’t have worked hard. 
Question 69. Sarah speaks Spanish very fluently. She could easily be mistaken for a native speaker. 
 A. The more Sarah practices Spanish, the more apparent it becomes that she is not a native speaker.
 B. Sarah’s Spanish is riddled with errors, making it clear she is a non-native speaker. 
 C. Such is Sarah’s command of Spanish that she could pass for a native without raising an eyebrow. 
 D. Even if Sarah’s Spanish were flawless, her foreign accent would give her away.
Question 70. He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not talented.
 A. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.
 B. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
 C. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.
 D. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.
Question 71. The manager was unhappy with the sales figures. He decided to revise the marketing strategy.
 A. The marketing blueprint was restructured in response to an unexpected surge in sales.
 B. Dismayed by the lackluster sales performance, the manager opted to overhaul the marketing approach.
 C. The manager reveled in the company’s soaring sales, thus leaving the strategy unchanged.
 D. The manager manipulated the sales data to justify sticking with the initial plan.
Question 72. The restaurant is very popular. Many customers complain about its poor service.
 A. Despite being well-known, the restaurant faces criticism for its service quality.
 B. Customers continue to praise the restaurant’s service, making it highly popular. 
 C. The restaurant’s popularity is due to the excellent service it provides.
 D. No matter how good the service is, the restaurant struggles to attract customers.
Part 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in 
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 73. She didn’t understand the joke, but she laughed anyway to avoid looking out of place. 
 A. Although the joke went over her head, she forced a laugh to blend in. 
 8 DeThiTiengAnh.net 9
 B. The joke was so hilarious that she laughed despite not understanding it. 
 C. She pretended to laugh at the joke even though she found it offensive.
 D. Despite understanding the joke, she chose not to laugh.
Question 74. The scientist’s discovery revolutionized modern medicine. 
 A. Modern medicine was transformed due to the scientist’s discovery. 
 B. The scientist’s discovery failed to contribute to modern medicine. 
 C. The scientist’s discovery had little impact on modern medicine. 
 D. Modern medicine has existed long before the scientist’s discovery.
Question 75. Although we understand the project's complexities, any further delays would only exacerbate 
the situation and make things worse.
 A. Despite understanding the difficulties involved in the project, further delays would only result in better 
 solutions.
 B. While we understand the challenges of the project, further delays will only complicate matters and 
 make the situation more dire.
 C. Even though we comprehend the project's difficulties, we need to avoid making any further delays that 
 could worsen the situation.
 D. We acknowledge the complexity of the project, but continuing to delay it would not solve any of the 
 existing problems.
Question 76. It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
 A. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
 B. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
 C. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
 D. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods.
Question 77. Wouldn't it be a good idea to inform employees about the policy changes?
 A. Employees must be informed about the policy changes as soon as possible. 
 B. The management announced the policy changes without informing employees.
 C. Why didn’t employees inform the management about the policy changes? 
 D. Don't you think employees should be informed about the policy changes? 
Question 78. Although the company narrowly avoided a crisis, the situation could have easily spiraled out 
of control if not for their swift action. 
 A. The company did not need to intervene as the crisis would have resolved itself without consequences.
 B. Thanks to timely intervention, the company avoided the crisis, but the situation could have become 
 much worse. 
 C. The company let the crisis escalate, failing to address the problem in time.
 D. The company prevented the crisis from spiraling out of control by inaction. 
Question 79. The company admitted that the security breach had been caused by a lack of proper 
safeguards and vowed to take more measures to prevent future occurrences. 
 A. The company failed to recognize the cause of the security breach and has not made any plans to 
 improve their systems. 
 B. The company claimed the security breach happened because of inadequate protection and promised 
 to put in place more measures to ensure it doesn’t happen again. 
 C. Despite the security breach, the company remained confident in their current measures and did not 
 take further action. 
 D. The company insisted that the breach was not due to security issues, but promised to introduce 
 additional safeguards.
Question 80. Right after Robert moved to the new school, he could effortlessly socialize with the new 
friends.
 A. Robert had moved to a new school and he could socialize with his new friends in vain.
 B. Hardly had Robert made new friends effortlessly when he could move to a new school. 
 C. Scarcely had Robert moved to the new school when he could fit in with the new friends.
 D. Before moving to the new school, Robert could make an effort to make new friends. 
 9

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