7 Đề thi thử tốt nghiệp THPT 2021-2026 môn Tiếng Anh SGD Hà Nội (Có đáp án)

 ĐỀ SỐ 1
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2026
 HÀ NỘI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
 LẦN 1 Thời gian làm bài: ..... phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C and D on your answer sheet to indicate 
the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
 Huong Pagoda Festival 2026
 The Huong Pagoda Festival 2026 officially commenced in Hanoi, attracting thousands of pilgrims and 
tourists from across the country. As one of (1) ____ largest spiritual events in northern Viet Nam, the 
festival continues to draw widespread attention.
 The Huong Pagoda complex includes more than twenty pagodas and temples (2) along the scenic 
Yen Stream, forming a unique religious landscape that blends culture and nature.
 To enhance service standards, the district council upgraded transport routes and parking areas. They 
then introduced (3) ________ initiatives, including digital ticketing systems and clearer visitor guidance.
 Local authorities have (4) security arrangements to ensure a safe and orderly festive season. 
Therefore, (5) visitor is required to follow safety regulations for a smooth and respectful 
experience.
 The festival is well-known for its religious rituals and vibrant cultural programs designed to highlight 
traditional music and community activities.
 Over the years, the event has contributed significantly to promoting Hanoi as a (6) in Vietnam.
 1. A. the B. a C. Ø D. an
 2. A. which locates B. locating C. which is located D. located
 3. A. the others B. others C. other D. another
 4. A. stepped up B. turned up C. ended up D. used up
 5. A. each B. many C. much D. some
 6. A. tourism leading destination B. leading destination tourism
C. destination leading tourism D. leading tourism destination
Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option 
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
 EAT THAT FROG!
 Imagine this scenario: You’ve taken up a new job or started a new course, (7) ____ you’re already 
feeling overworked. You’ve got so many things to do. In his book Eat That Frog!, Brian Tracy explains 
how simple habits can help you reach your full potential and avoid burnout. Below are four key strategies 
for improving productivity:
• Tackle your most difficult task first. Your “frog” represents the task you are most likely to (8) _____ 
until later. Completing it early gives you a strong sense of achievement and builds motivation for the rest 
of the day.
• Write down clear goals. Identify what you want to achieve in the next twelve months and focus on the objective that will have the greatest positive impact on your life. (9) ______ immediate action is essential 
for long-term success.
• Plan your day carefully. Setting aside (10) _________ time for careful planning can also make a 
difference. Creating a to-do list allows you to organise tasks efficiently. Research suggests that systematic 
organisation can cause a noticeable increase in productivity, particularly when working towards a 
deadline.
• Develop consistent habits. Observing successful people can improve your career prospects. When 
positive behaviours become second (11) ____, they require less effort and produce better long- term 
results. Ultimately, consistent effort enhances long-term sustainability and personal (12) ____.
7. A. orB. asC. soD. but
8. A. rejectB. postponeC. abandonD. cancel
9. A. MakingB. GettingC. TakingD. Doing
10. A. a littleB. littleC. fewD. a few
11. A. instinctB. habitC. routineD. nature
12. A. effectB. effectivelyC. effectivenessD. effective
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or 
sentences to make a cohesive and coherent exchange or text in each of the following questions.
13.
a. Mike: Not bad, thanks. I’m just glad it’s over! How about you? How’d your presentation go?
b. Lucy: Sure thing! Come over around 10:00, after breakfast.
c. Lucy: Hey! How did your Pragmatics exam go? 
d. Mike: No problem. So do you feel like studying tomorrow for our English exam? 
e. Lucy: Oh, it went really well. Thanks for helping me with it!
A. e – d – b – c – a B. c – a – e – d – b C. c – d – e – a – b D. e – a – c – d – b
14.
a. The upward trend continued and in 2020, more than half of its population lived in urban areas. In the 
next twenty years, the urban population is expected to reach 65 per cent of the total population.
b. The line graph shows population trends in Fantasia’s urban and rural areas over the 1950-2040 period.
c. By contrast, the urban population grew throughout the same period. In 1950, the percentage of urban 
population was just around 6 per cent. It increased slightly to 15 per cent in 1980.
d. Overall, the urban population has increased and will continue to grow while the rural population has 
decreased and will continue to fall.
e. In 1950, 94 per cent or most of Fantasia’s population lived in rural areas; this figure remained stable
until 1960 before falling to 48 per cent in 2020 and is expected to drop to 35 per cent in 2040.
A. b – c – d – a – e B. b – a – d – c – e C. b – e – d – a – c D. b – d – e – c – a
15.
Dear Customer Service Team,
a. After bringing it home and installing it correctly, I found that it did not work properly.
b. Please advise me on how to return the faulty item. I look forward to your prompt response.
c. Whenever the power is on, the drum does not spin, and the machine makes a strange noise. d. I am writing to complain about a washing machine I purchased from your store on 22 February 2026.
e. As this is a brand-new product and still under warranty, I would like to request a replacement or a full 
refuud.
Yours faithfully, Laura Brown
A. e – d – b – c – a B. c – a – d – b – e C. a – e – d – c – b D. d – a – c – e – b
16.
a. Katy: Honestly, I’m not sure if I’ll go. I don’t know Sam that well.
b. Jane: Hi, Katy. Are you going to Sam’s party at the weekend?
c. Jane: Don’t worry. He’s very friendly, so I think you two will get along.
A. c – a – b B. b – a – c C. b – c – a D. a – b – c
17.
a. Firstly, it helps people distinguish between reliable sources and misleading or false content.
b. As a result, individuals are better equipped to make informed decisions and avoid being manipulated 
by misinformation.
c. Media literacy also encourages audiences to recognize bias, persuasive techniques, and hidden agendas 
in advertisements and news reports.
d. On a larger scale, integrating media literacy education into school curricula is crucial for developing 
responsible and critical thinkers.
e. Media literacy is an essential skill in the modern world because it enables individuals to critically 
evaluate the vast amount of information they encounter every day.
A. e – c – a – d – b B. c – a – b – d – e C. e – a – c – b – d D. c – b – a – e – d
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
 MEMORIZATION TECHNIQUES
 Throughout history, scholars have recognised that memory plays a central role in cognitive 
development. It is therefore essential to understand which techniques can help us memorize more 
efficiently. One of the most effective ways (18) _____. Below are two simple techniques to help you 
remember everything, even a shopping list of eight items.
 The first method involves creating a vivid and unusual story. For example, picture a giant loaf of 
bread with coffee suddenly spraying out like a fountain. The coffee turns into white yoghurt, (19)___. 
Olives run across the bridge while large eggs chase them. The olives hide behind a carton of orange juice. 
When you try to eat one, it becomes a bitter-tasting onion. (20) .
 The second technique is called the “memory palace”. Visualize your home and mentally walk through 
each room. Place the items from your list in specific locations, such as bread on the doormat or coffee in 
front of the TV. (21) , you make the information easier to recall. Not only is this strategy 
useful for shopping lists (22) .
18.
A. may be use imagination B. is to avoid using imagination
C. is to use imagination D. are imagining effectively
19. A. flowing into a river that passed under a bridge made from steak
B. into which flows a river passing through a bridge made from steak
C. which flows into a river passing under a bridge made of steak
D. the river then flows and passes through a bridge made of steak
20.
A. Such usual mental sequences immediately quell your curiosity
B. These strange and colourful images help fix the items in your mind
C. In this way, the stories appear more entertaining and engaging
D. These strange and colourful images may confuse your memory
21.
A. By forming personal and clear associations B. If the information is defined several times
C. When you create vivid yet impersonal images D. Despite the use of detailed mental pictures
22.
A. although it is also helpful when some people give speeches without cues Y
B. but it benefits all people who deliver speeches using prompts as well
C. but also some people are beneficial from giving a speech without notes
D. but it is also beneficial for some people to deliver speeches without notes
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best 
answer to each of the following questions.
 Although our brain accounts for just 2 percent of our body weight, the organ consumes half of our 
daily carbohydrate requirements — and glucose is its most important fuel. Under acute stress, the brain 
requires some 12 percent more energy, prompting many to gravitate towards sugary snacks.
 Carbohydrates provide the body with the quickest source of energy. In fact, in cognitive tests subjects 
who were stressed performed poorly prior to eating. Their performance, however, went back to normal 
after consuming carbohydrates.
 The regulation of hunger involves several brain regions that control metabolism and feeding 
behaviour. One key structure acts as a kind of gatekeeper. When this region registers that the brain lacks
 glucose, it limits signals from the rest of the body. As a result, people often turn to carbohydrates as 
soon as the brain signals a need for energy, even if the body still has sufficient reserves.
 To explore the relationship between stress and eating behaviour, researchers conducted an experiment 
with 40 participants. In one session, the participants delivered a ten-minute speech in front of strangers. In 
another session, they did not have to speak. After each session, scientists measured levels of the stress 
hormones cortisol and adrenaline and then provided a food buffet. When the participants gave a speech 
before the buffet, they were more stressed, and on average consumed an additional 34 grams of 
carbohydrates, than when they did not give a speech.
 In everyday life, cravings for sweet foods may also have a physiological explanation. When the brain 
lacks energy, it may increase the production of stress hormones, which over time can raise the risk 
of heart disease, stroke, or depression. Studies also suggest that people who experienced high levels of 
stress in childhood may develop stronger preferences for sweets later in life.
 For some people, especially those under long-term stress, cravings for sweets may not be a lack of self-control. Instead, they may reflect the brain’s need for energy. Reducing stress may be the key to 
healthier eating habits.
23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for sugary food cravings?
A. The brain relies heavily on glucose as its primary fuel.
B. The body may completely exhaust its internal energy reserves.
C. The brain requires additional energy during periods of stress.
D. Carbohydrates serve as a rapid source of energy for the body.
24. The phrase gravitate towards in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to .
A. abstain from B. derive from C. incline to D. predispose to
25. The word registers in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by .
A. suppresses B. perceives C. monitors D. applies
26. The word they in paragraph 6 refers to .
A. sweets B. people C. cravings D. habits
27. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?
A. A sustained increase in stress hormones may arise when the brain lacks energy, eventually raising the 
risk of heart disease or depression.
B. Insufficient food intake may prompt the brain to increase stress hormone production, thereby raising 
long-term risks of cardiovascular and mental health disorders.
C. When people do not consume sufficient food, the body gradually struggles to regulate stress 
hormones, which may contribute to chronic illness.
D. Skipping meals can unintentionally trigger serious conditions such as stroke or heart disease because 
the brain does not receive enough energy.
28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. When the brain senses a shortage of glucose, it may ignore signals from the rest of the body.
B. People experiencing stress usually lose their appetite because their brains require more energy.
C. Eating sugary foods is the most effective way to reduce stress hormones in the body.
D. The hypothalamus is the only part of the brain that is responsible for controlling hunger.
29. Which paragraph suggests that cravings for sweet foods may not indicate an individual’s
deficiency?
A. Paragraph 5 B. Paragraph 6 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4 
30. Which paragraph provides experimental evidence that eating carbohydrates can improve task 
performance?
A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 1 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best 
answer to each of the following questions.
 In their article “Just Plane Wrong: Celebs with the Worst Private Jet CO2 Emissions,” YARD ranked 
Taylor Swift as the celebrity with the largest carbon footprint, attributing 138 tons of emissions to her 
private jet. Jay-Z and Floyd Mayweather followed closely behinD. Swift’s recent attendance at
 Kansas City Chiefs games to support her partner, Travis Kelce, has intensified media scrutiny. 
Celebrities receiving public criticism for air travel is hardly a new phenomenon. Singling out one individual risks oversimplifying a broader issue that predates any particular headline. [I]
 Carbon emissions are, to some extent, unavoidable for high-profile public figures who travel 
frequently. In “Rich Enough to Offset,” Laura Kiesel explores the ever-increasing carbon emissions of 
celebrities including Arnold Schwarzenegger and Leonardo DiCaprio, and how they have tried to account 
for them. One popular approach is carbon offsetting, a practice that allows individuals to compensate for 
emissions by funding environmental initiatives, including reforestation or renewable energy projects. [II] 
While such efforts may signal accountability, critics argue that they rarely neutralize emissions in any 
meaningful sense.
 Professor Jon Erickson of the University of Vermont highlights concerns about the unintended 
consequences of certain offset projects, particularly in developing regions. Some initiatives, such as 
small-scale solar schemes established to counterbalance luxury emissions, may inadvertently limit 
resources available for essential services like healthcare and education. Furthermore, these efforts do 
little to address the root causes of excess carbon emissions. Erickson therefore calls for stronger 
legislative measures, including mandated caps on emissions that would directly address the source of the 
problem without displacing its impacts. [III]
 Celebrity air travel remains under constant scrutiny, regardless of public sentiment. Although 
voluntary offset programmes may help restore celebrities’ reputations, they can also legitimise continued 
overconsumption. In “Don’t Bet on Offsets,” A.C. Thompson and Duane Moles question whether such 
mechanisms can realistically counteract emissions. Companies such as TerraPass offer affluent 
consumers the opportunity to calculate and compensate for their carbon footprints, yet these transactions 
often occur in loosely regulated markets lacking consistent standards. [IV]
 While carbon offsetting provides limited mitigation opportunities, meaningful progress depends on 
systemic reforms that reduce overall emissions and confront the underlying causes of climate impact. 31. 
The author mentions Taylor Swift in paragraph 1 primarily to .
A. demonstrate that celebrities are unfairly targeted by environmental critics
B. argue that public figures are the main contributors to climate change
C. illustrate how individual cases can obscure a broader structural issue
D. suggest that media attention exaggerates environmental concerns
32. The phrase such efforts in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. high-profile individuals B. environmental initiatives
C. renewable energy projects D. carbon emissions
33. According to paragraph 2, how do some celebrities attempt to manage their environmental impact?
A. By investing exclusively in large-scale renewable infrastructure
B. By reducing the frequency of their international travel schedules
C. By financially supporting environmental projects to offset emissions
D. By complying with mandatory government carbon regulations
34. According to paragraph 3, some offset initiatives may be problematic because they .
A. eliminate local employment opportunities in developing regions
B. unintentionally limit essential services in lower-income communities
C. increase the operational costs of small-scale solar installations D. reduce investment in global renewable energy schemes and markets
35. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. These initiatives make minimal progress in tackling the underlying issue of excessive carbon 
emissions.
B. These efforts tend to focus on reducing visible emissions rather than their overall generated volume.
C. These programmes shift responsibility for tackling carbon emissions to alternative environmental 
sectors.
D. These initiatives are likely to eliminate the primary factors responsible for high carbon emissions.
36. Which of the following is TRUE according to paragraph 4?
A. TerraPass has eliminated doubts about carbon neutrality claims.
B. Offset programmes guarantee measurable reductions in emissions.
C. Carbon offset markets operate under strict international regulation.
D. Some offset transactions occur in poorly regulated environments.
37. The word legitimise in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to:
A. conceal B. justify C. restrict D. calculate
38. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Carbon offsetting may alleviate certain environmental pressures but does not fundamentally transform 
emission-producing behaviour.
B. Carbon offsetting provides a comprehensive remedy capable of permanently eliminating luxury- 
related carbon emissions.
C. Carbon offsetting functions primarily as a public relations strategy without individuals’ sense of
accountability towards the environment.
D. Carbon offsetting guarantees measurable climate benefits through market-based investment in 
renewable initiatives.
39. Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit?
This environment creates space for exaggerated claims of carbon neutrality without verifiable 
outcomes.
A. [III] B. [I] C. [IV] D. [II]
40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Carbon offset markets provide a practical mechanism for reducing the environmental impact of luxury 
air travel among high-profile individuals in response to growing criticism.
B. Although media scrutiny of celebrity jet use has intensified, public criticism tends to focus 
disproportionately on affluent individuals rather than the broader patterns of carbon consumption.
C. Growing public concern about luxury air travel has prompted calls for stricter government regulation 
of private aviation and improved oversight of carbon offset markets.
D. Although celebrities adopt carbon offsetting to address emissions from private air travel, critics argue 
that these measures are inadequate and effective climate action requires systemic reform. ĐÁP ÁN
I. ĐÁP ÁN
 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. A
 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
 21. A 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. A
 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. D 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. D
II. GIẢI THÍCH CHI TIẾT
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C and D on your answer sheet to indicate 
the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
1. A
A. the /ðə/ (mạo từ): dùng trước danh từ xác định hoặc so sánh nhất
B. a /ə/ (mạo từ): dùng trước danh từ số ít đếm được chưa xác định
C. Ø (rỗng): không dùng mạo từ
D. an /ən/ (mạo từ): dùng trước danh từ bắt đầu bằng nguyên âm
Giải thích: Căn cứ vào cấu trúc so sánh nhất: "one of the + so sánh nhất + danh từ số nhiều".
A. ĐÚNG – "the largest" là hình thức so sánh nhất của tính từ "large".
B. SAI – So sánh nhất không đi với mạo từ "a".
C. SAI – So sánh nhất bắt buộc phải có mạo từ "the".
D. SAI – "largest" bắt đầu bằng phụ âm, không dùng "an".
2. D
A. which locates (mệnh đề quan hệ): sai nghĩa chủ động
B. locating (phân từ): sai nghĩa chủ động
C. which is located (mệnh đề quan hệ): đúng ngữ pháp nhưng ít dùng hơn dạng rút gọn
D. located /loʊˈkeɪtɪd/ (tính từ/quá khứ phân từ): tọa lạc, nằm ở (dùng ở dạng rút gọn mệnh đề quan hệ)
Giải thích: Căn cứ vào danh từ "pagodas and temples" được đặt ở vị trí (tọa lạc) dọc theo con suối.
A. SAI – Động từ "locate" thường dùng ở dạng bị động để chỉ vị trí.
B. SAI – Mang nghĩa chủ động (đang tọa lạc) không phù hợp ngữ cảnh này.
C. SAI – Dù đúng ngữ pháp nhưng phương án D (rút gọn) là lựa chọn tối ưu và tự nhiên hơn trong văn
phong mô tả.
D. ĐÚNG – Rút gọn mệnh đề quan hệ dạng bị động: "which are located" -> "located".
3. C
A. the others /ði ˈʌðərz/ (đại từ): những cái còn lại (trong một nhóm xác định)
B. others /ˈʌðərz/ (đại từ): những cái khác (không xác định)
C. other /ˈʌðər/ (lượng từ): khác (dùng trước danh từ số nhiều/không đếm được)
D. another /əˈnʌðər/ (lượng từ): một cái khác (dùng trước danh từ số ít)
Giải thích: Căn cứ vào danh từ số nhiều "initiatives" (các sáng kiến).
A. SAI – "the others" là đại từ, không đi trực tiếp trước danh từ.
B. SAI – "others" là đại từ, không đi trực tiếp trước danh từ.
C. ĐÚNG – "other + danh từ số nhiều" để chỉ những sáng kiến khác nói chung.
D. SAI – "another" chỉ đi với danh từ số ít. 4. A
A. stepped up /stept ʌp/ (cụm động từ): tăng cường, đẩy mạnh
B. turned up /tɜːrnd ʌp/ (cụm động từ): xuất hiện, đến; vặn to âm lượng
C. ended up /ˈendɪd ʌp/ (cụm động từ): có kết cục là, rốt cuộc thì
D. used up /juːzd ʌp/ (cụm động từ): dùng hết sạch
Giải thích: Căn cứ vào ngữ cảnh chính quyền địa phương tăng cường các biện pháp an ninh.
A. ĐÚNG – "stepped up security arrangements" (tăng cường sắp xếp an ninh).
B. SAI – Không hợp nghĩa.
C. SAI – Không hợp nghĩa.
D. SAI – Không hợp nghĩa.
5. A
A. each /iːtʃ/ (lượng từ): mỗi (dùng với danh từ số ít)
B. many /ˈmeni/ (lượng từ): nhiều (dùng với danh từ số nhiều)
C. much /mʌtʃ/ (lượng từ): nhiều (dùng với danh từ không đếm được)
D. some /sʌm/ (lượng từ): một vài (dùng với danh từ số nhiều/không đếm được)
Giải thích: Căn cứ vào danh từ số ít "visitor" (du khách).
A. ĐÚNG – "each visitor" (mỗi du khách).
B. SAI – "many" đi với danh từ số nhiều "visitors".
C. SAI – "much" không đi với danh từ đếm được.
D. SAI – "some" đi với danh từ số nhiều "visitors".
6. D
A. tourism leading destination (cụm danh từ): sai trật tự tính từ/danh từ
B. leading destination tourism (cụm danh từ): sai trật tự nghĩa
C. destination leading tourism (cụm danh từ): sai trật tự nghĩa
D. leading tourism destination (cụm danh từ): điểm đến du lịch hàng đầu
Giải thích: Căn cứ vào trật tự của cụm danh từ: Tính từ (leading) + Danh từ bổ nghĩa (tourism) + Danh
từ chính (destination).
A. SAI – Trật tự từ không đúng.
B. SAI – Trật tự từ không đúng.
C. SAI – Trật tự từ không đúng.
D. ĐÚNG – "leading" bổ nghĩa cho cụm "tourism destination".
 Tiếng Anh Tiếng Việt
The Huong Pagoda Festival 2026 officially Lễ hội Chùa Hương năm 2026 đã chính thức bắt đầu 
commenced in Hanoi, attracting thousands of tại Hà Nội, thu hút hàng nghìn người hành hương và 
pilgrims and tourists from across the country. As khách du lịch từ khắp cả nước. Là một trong số (1) 
one of (1) the largest spiritual events in northern những sự kiện tâm linh lớn nhất ở miền Bắc Việt 
Viet Nam, the festival continues to draw Nam, lễ hội tiếp tục thu hút sự
widespread attention. chú ý rộng rãi. The Huong Pagoda complex includes more than Quần thể Chùa Hương bao gồm hơn hai mươi ngôi 
twenty pagodas and temples (2) located along chùa và đền thờ (2) tọa lạc dọc theo suối Yến thơ 
the scenic Yen Stream, forming a unique mộng, tạo nên một cảnh quan tôn giáo
religious landscape that blends culture and độc đáo hòa quyện giữa văn hóa và thiên nhiên.
nature.
To enhance service standards, the district Để nâng cao tiêu chuẩn dịch vụ, hội đồng huyện đã 
council upgraded transport routes and parking nâng cấp các tuyến đường giao thông và khu vực bãi 
areas. They then introduced (3) other initiatives, đậu xe. Sau đó, họ đã giới thiệu (3) các sáng kiến 
including digital ticketing systems and clearer khác, bao gồm hệ thống bán vé kỹ thuật số và hướng 
visitor guidance. dẫn khách tham quan rõ ràng hơn.
Local authorities have (4) stepped up security Chính quyền địa phương đã (4) tăng cường các biện 
arrangements to ensure a safe and orderly festive pháp an ninh để đảm bảo một mùa lễ hội an toàn và 
season. Therefore, (5) each visitor is required to trật tự. Do đó, (5) mỗi khách tham quan được yêu cầu 
follow safety regulations for a smooth and tuân thủ các quy định an toàn để có một trải nghiệm 
respectful experience. suôn sẻ và tôn nghiêm.
The festival is well-known for its religious Lễ hội nổi tiếng với các nghi lễ tôn giáo và các 
rituals and vibrant cultural programs designed to chương trình văn hóa sôi động được thiết kế nhằm làm 
highlight traditional music and community nổi bật âm nhạc truyền thống và các hoạt động cộng 
activities. đồng.
Over the years, the event has contributed Qua nhiều năm, sự kiện này đã góp phần đáng
significantly to promoting Hanoi as a (6) kể vào việc quảng bá Hà Nội như một (6) điểm đến 
leading tourism destination in Vietnam. du lịch hàng đầu tại Việt Nam.
Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option 
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
7. D
A. or (liên từ): hoặc B. as (liên từ): vì, khi
C. so (liên từ): vì vậy D. but (liên từ): nhưng
Giải thích: Dựa vào mối quan hệ tương phản giữa việc bắt đầu một điều gì đó mới và cảm giác mệt 
mỏi/quá sức ngay lập tức.
A. SAI – Không chỉ sự lựa chọn. B. SAI – Không chỉ nguyên nhân.
C. SAI – Không chỉ kết quả. D. ĐÚNG – "nhưng" diễn tả sự tương phản.
8. B
A. reject (động từ): từ chối, bác bỏ B. postpone (động từ): trì hoãn
C. abandon (động từ): từ bỏ D. cancel (động từ): hủy bỏ
Giải thích: Dựa vào cụm "until later" (đến sau này), hành động phù hợp nhất là trì hoãn.
A. SAI – Không đi với "until later".
B. ĐÚNG – "postpone until later" là cụm từ hợp lý.
C. SAI – "abandon" là bỏ mặc hoàn toàn.
D. SAI – "cancel" là hủy, không làm nữa.
9. C